And what if surface is frictionless( which I forgot to write earlier) ?
In that case, I guess the ring will translate, as there isn’t any moment available to rotate it.
You did it by passing axis along COM , now do it with bottom point
Remember …alpha should.come out to be 0 in that case too
In that case, I think that the normal will shift, and cause a counter moment to cancel that due to F.
No no no…
That due to mg will be the deciding one.
Come on man, don’t be sarcastic.
Mg will still pass through bottom point…and sorry
Np, the same case also happens in case of inclined toppling. It that case, the normal due to the surface shifts by L/2tan(x). But it’s in case of a cube or cuboid.
Dude , only one point is in contact with ground, where will N go by shifting
Yeah, that’s what eating my head.
So what’s the thing u wanna show here with this?
Bottom point is accelerating, you need to account for pseudo force in this case my boy…so it does matter what axis you are choosing…give it a try
Okay, it means that pure rolling won’t occur in that case. Good Brother !!! You are very intelligent.
I acknowledged my mistake. I’m sorry and thanks for teaching me that important concept.