Doubt from probability

Can anyone provide relation between mean and variance in binomial distribution in Bernoulli trials please ?

Mean = p
Variance = p(1-p)
Hence
Variance = Mean(1-Mean) in Bernoulli's trials.
Now, binomial distribution is different from bernoullis trials. You can just multiply both results by 'n' in Binomial Distribution (proof is non trivial)
Hence Variance = np(1-p) = Mean(1-p)

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