-x^2 < f(x) < x^2
Can you explain how you had found left hand and right hand limit by squeeze theorem?
at limit x->0 l.h.l and r.h.l = 0
cuz if x->0 x^2 will also tend to 0
Shouldn't LHL=RHL=0 implies limit exist and 0 and not the other way round?
ya i was saying the same.. sorry if i wasnt clear
rhl and lhl both tend to 0 therefore the limit exists and is eql to 0
Still unable to understand how you have used squeeze theorem to find LHL and RHL separately, i have never seen squeeze theorem used in this way